Is “kingdom” in Biblical Hebrew, מַמְלָכָה mamlakha or מַלְכוּת malkhut? How does the Bible express that something is prohibited? Many linguistic scholars posit that it depends on the dialect, CBH or LBH. Does statistical analysis support this conclusion?Building on the work of scholars such as the late Avi Hurvitz.
Some PaleoJudaica posts on the vexed question of linguistic dating of biblical Hebrew are here, here, here, here, here, here, here, here, and here.
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