The Hebrew particle נָא naʾ appears almost four hundred times in the Bible. How should it be translated? To answer this question, we need to look at: 1) the biblical contexts; 2) the ancient translations of the Bible; 3) medieval grammarians; and 4) modern grammarians.If we move a little further afield and look at cognates, Akkadian has an enclitic particle -ma which has an emphatic sense. I've wondered if biblical Hebrew -na' had that usage too. It often fits the context. Then there's the baffling Ugaritic enclitic particle -m ...
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